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  1. #1
    curiously Guest

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    I opened my mail from my attorney and it read this: Enclosed please find copies of the records I just received from Dr. ?. He actually gave you a decent disabililty rating, although i'm sure you won't think so. From a defense doctor's standpoint, he gave you a 20%, whereas most doctors don't even go very high into double digits, even with the surgery you had. That rating is only for you neck, and has nothing to do with your shoulder or elbows.
    Any responses? Is this good? I'm in MO and weekly TTD rate was 206.80. So, what does this 20% rating mean? Playing phone tag with attorney and now she's out of office till Monday.

  2. #2
    jeffers Guest

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    All I can tell you curiously is never settle. that attorney&#39;s wording sounds to me like he is trying to belittle you. &#34;although i&#39;m sure you won&#39;t think so&#34; what an <FONT COLOR="ff0000">•••••••</FONT>. now thats just my opinion, but it sounds like to me he is going to get it up to a 35% rating and try to settle you out so he can get his cut of the pie, and move on to the next client. My advise is never settle the medical or prescriptions...or even any portions of the claim itself, because that 35% or whatever he gets can be far higher as you get older, like 5 years from now. Plus we all know how these injurys go from bad to worse.

  3. #3
    knowknees Guest

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    Not bad, HONESTLY! I&#39;m a bit surprised, 20% rating means your new Attorney needs to find you, OH NO HERE IT COMES,...an IME or other Dr./Specialist that will rate you at 40% or greater...The GAME has officially started....Greg

  4. #4
    curiously Guest

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    well, my attorney seems to think that this 20% is fantastic, from the way the letter is written...sounds just like attorney is looking for settlement...NO WAY! along with the letter from attorney, CT scan notes taken in January say &#34;The c3-4 disc bulges minimally, but there is no herniatin or stenosis&#34; OKay, that&#39;s something new and the ortho doc never mentioned this to me. also says &#34;at c5-6 spurs are seen at the posterior margins of the related end-plates, mildly encroaching upon the cervical subarachnoid space&#34; &#34;THe trachea is mildly deviated to the right. There appears to be an indistince left thyroid nodule that probably accounts for the mild rightward tracheal deviation. Ultrasound correlation is reccomended&#34; Why didn&#39;t ortho doc mention this to me when he wrote me in Jan and saw me in April? And what does this mean, these are the ortho doc&#39;s radiograph notes &#40;before the ultrasound was taken&#41; &#34;with flexion extention views there is very little cooperation with simply Ms Hamilton dipping the chin up and down. For whatever reason there is not even cerviothoracic movement. As such, assessing the positon of the spinous processes in regard to mobility is problematic. The assumption would be that her residual symptoms are related to her preoperative complaints, a two-level fusion and obviously also some stress on the interalary c5-6&#34;
    They are not even bothering to discuss/include c5-6 because they say it is DDD. They have said nothing about c3-4.

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